Information-Technology-Management WGU Information Technology Management QGC2 Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Definition of Globalization Benefits:

Globalization allows organizations to expand their operations globally, gaining access to diverse markets and resources, including new talent pools from different regions.

Key Benefit:

Accessing new talent pools enables businesses to tap into a diverse workforce with varied skills, fostering innovation and improving operational efficiency.

Incorrect Options Analysis:

A. Costs associated with new geographic areas: This is a challenge, not a benefit.

B. Adherence to regulatory requirements: This is an obligation, not a benefit.

C. Increased competition: This is a consequence of globalization, but not a direct benefit.

References and Documents of Information Technology Management:

"Global Workforce Management" (Harvard Business Review).

ITIL Global IT Strategy Framework (Axelos).

Linux is an open-source, Unix-like operating system widely used for servers, cloud computing, and high-performance workstations. It offers flexibility, security, and customization, making it the preferred choice for enterprise and web hosting environments.

CRM systems include campaign performance analysis features that allow organizations to measure the success of marketing campaigns, such as conversion rates, customer responses, ROI, and overall effectiveness. This enables continuous improvement of marketing strategies.

Option A: Message delivery tracking only shows if communication reached the customer, not campaign success.

Option B: Contact response summaries are part of reporting but do not give full performance insights.

Option C: Promotion strategy evaluation is broader and more subjective than measurable campaign analytics.

Therefore, the correct CRM feature is campaign performance analysis.

Primary Elements of Information Infrastructure:

Business Continuity Plans (BCP): Ensure that critical business operations continue during and after a disruption.

Disaster Recovery Plans (DRP): Focus on restoring IT systems and data after a disaster.

Backup and Recovery Plans: Protect against data loss and enable data restoration after failures.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option B (Augmentation plans): Not a standard element of information infrastructure.

Option C (Authentication plans): Authentication is part of security protocols, not infrastructure support.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A customer relationship management (CRM) system helps organizations manage interactions with both potential and existing customers. To retain existing customers over time, organizations must understand and continuously improve the customer experience. The CRM feature that supports this is experience monitoring.

Experience monitoring includes:

Tracking customer feedback and satisfaction

Recording service issues, resolutions, and response times

Monitoring customer interactions across channels (email, phone, chat, in-person)

Identifying patterns that may indicate dissatisfaction or risk of churn

By analyzing these data, organizations can proactively address problems, personalize interactions, and enhance service quality, all of which support long-term customer retention.

Option A (Campaign scheduling) focuses on planning and executing marketing campaigns, typically aimed at promotions or outreach. While valuable, it is more related to acquiring or engaging customers than directly monitoring their experience.

Option B (Invoice scheduling) is a finance or billing function and does not primarily support customer retention strategy.

Option C (Lead qualification analysis) is focused on evaluating potential customers (leads), which is more about acquisition than retention.

Thus, the feature that best supports efforts to keep existing customers over time is experience monitoring.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

User consent is a fundamental principle in responsible data collection and privacy management. It ensures that individuals are informed about what data is being collected, how it will be used, and under what conditions, and that they agree to that specific use. Consent provides a clear legal and ethical basis for processing personal data and supports transparency and trust between users and the organization.

With valid consent, users understand and approve the purpose and scope of data processing. This aligns with many privacy regulations and best practices, which require that organizations collect and use data only for specified, legitimate purposes that the user has been made aware of and has agreed to.

Option A is incorrect because consent does not grant unlimited or indefinite rights; data use is typically limited to the purposes and conditions disclosed at the time consent is obtained.

Option B is incorrect because user consent does not replace privacy policies; privacy policies remain necessary to explain data practices in detail.

Option D is incorrect because consent does not remove safeguards; appropriate protections and controls are still required.

Thus, user consent is important because it confirms that users agree to specific data use, making C the correct answer.

Definition of Green Computers:

A green computer is designed using environmentally friendly materials and technologies aimed at reducing the environmental footprint. These computers prioritize energy efficiency, recyclability, and sustainable production practices.

Features of Green Computers:

Use of recyclable and non-toxic materials.

Energy-efficient components to minimize power consumption.

Adherence to environmental standards like Energy Star and EPEAT certifications.

Incorrect Options Analysis:

Workstation, Personal, and Server describe categories based on usage or functionality, not environmental considerations.

References and Documents of Information Technology Management:

"Green IT and Sustainability" (Gartner Whitepaper).

Energy Star Certification Guidelines (U.S. Environmental Protection Agency).

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Ethical IT use in the workplace requires that employees understand what is allowed, what is prohibited, and how technology must be used to protect the organization and its stakeholders. Providing clear guidelines on technology use is a fundamental ethical and professional practice because it:

Establishes expectations for responsible use of devices, networks, and data.

Reduces misuse of systems by clarifying what constitutes inappropriate or risky behavior.

Supports compliance with security policies, privacy requirements, and legal regulations.

Ensures employees are treated fairly, because rules are known in advance and applied consistently.

These guidelines are typically defined in:

Acceptable Use Policies (AUPs)

Security and data protection policies

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policies

Monitoring and privacy notices

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Allowing personal devices without security controlsThis violates basic IT security and ethical principles. Unsecured personal devices introduce risks such as data leakage, malware, and unauthorized access.

B. Monitoring employee activity prior to explaining policiesMonitoring without first informing employees and providing clear policy terms is ethically questionable and can violate expectations of privacy and fairness. Ethical practice requires notice and transparency before monitoring.

D. Giving open access to company data for collaborationWhile collaboration is valuable, open access to company data can violate the principles of least privilege and data protection, increasing the risk of breaches and misuse.

Therefore, Option C is correct because providing clear guidelines on technology use is a direct, ethical support for responsible IT behavior in the workplace.

A major global workforce trend is the increasing demand for highly skilled professionals in specialized IT fields such as cybersecurity, artificial intelligence, cloud computing, and data analytics. IT leaders must adapt by recruiting, training, and retaining talent to fill these advanced roles.

Option A: Service-oriented jobs are growing, but IT leadership is impacted most by specialized skills demand.

Option C: Automation reduces some routine tasks but increases the need for specialized technical expertise.

Option D: Incorrect—specialized education and training are becoming more important, not less.

Thus, the workforce trend impacting IT leaders is increased demand for highly skilled professionals in specialized fields.

The Processor (CPU – Central Processing Unit) is the “brain” of the computer. It controls operations and executes instructions, performing arithmetic, logic, control, and input/output operations as directed by the program instructions.

Option A (Hard drive): Provides long-term storage, not operations control.

Option B (RAM): Stores data temporarily for quick access but does not control operations.

Option C (Graphics card): Handles rendering of images and video, but does not serve as the primary system controller.

Therefore, the processor is the component that carries out operations and manages execution.

In modern IT management, the ITIL framework is not prescriptive or rigid; instead, it provides flexible and adaptable guidelines that organizations can tailor to their size, structure, and needs. ITIL is designed to enhance IT service quality, efficiency, and alignment with business goals. It can be implemented in organizations of any size, not just large enterprises, and it does not replace other frameworks but can be used alongside them.

Option A: Incorrect, ITIL does not dictate rigid step-by-step processes; it offers adaptable practices.

Option B: Incorrect, ITIL complements, not replaces, other frameworks (like COBIT, Agile, or DevOps).

Option D: Incorrect, ITIL applies to both small and large organizations.

Therefore, ITIL’s role is to provide adaptable guidelines to enhance IT services.

An Enterprise System is designed to integrate and manage the core business processes of an organization across different departments within a single unified digital platform. It enables seamless information sharing, coordination, and communication across functions such as finance, human resources, supply chain, sales, and customer service. By centralizing data and processes, enterprise systems help eliminate silos, reduce duplication of effort, and ensure that decision-making is based on accurate, real-time information.

Option A (Project management) is incorrect because project management software is intended for scheduling, task tracking, and collaboration on specific projects, not for cross-departmental integration of business processes.

Option C (Transaction processing system) is incorrect because a TPS is designed to handle day-to-day business transactions efficiently, such as order entry or payroll, but does not integrate operations across departments.

Option D (Data analysis platform) is incorrect because while data analysis platforms provide insights and support decision-making, they do not unify business processes or coordinate operations across multiple departments.

The Enterprise System, often in the form of Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP), is the correct solution because it streamlines operations, promotes cross-departmental collaboration, and supports integrated decision-making in line with organizational strategy.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A manufacturing enterprise resource planning (ERP) system is designed to integrate and coordinate the internal operations that directly support production activities. One of its core functions is organizing and managing production schedules so that materials, machines, and labor are aligned to meet manufacturing demand efficiently.

Manufacturing ERP typically includes production planning and scheduling modules that help determine what to produce, when to produce it, and in what sequence. This allows the organization to:

Coordinate work orders and production runs

Balance capacity with demand

Reduce bottlenecks and downtime

Ensure materials and components are available at the right time

This directly improves internal operations by optimizing how production resources are used and reducing delays on the shop floor.

Option A (Managing team training certifications) is more aligned with human resources or learning management systems than manufacturing ERP.

Option C (Tracking customer order delivery satisfaction) is a function more closely associated with customer relationship management (CRM) or customer service tools.

Option D (Forecasting retail demand patterns) is typically part of demand forecasting or retail analytics, not the core internal manufacturing scheduling function of ERP.

Therefore, the function that a manufacturing ERP system supports to improve internal operations is organizing production schedules.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To help ensure legal compliance in IT, organizations must actively verify that their systems, processes, and controls are operating in accordance with relevant laws, regulations, and policies. One of the most effective ways to do this is through regular audits of IT practices.

Regular IT audits involve systematically reviewing security controls, access management, data handling, logging, change management, and other processes to identify gaps, violations, or weaknesses. These audits support corrective actions, continuous improvement, and documented evidence of compliance. They also help detect non-compliant behavior early, before it leads to legal or regulatory consequences.

Option A is incorrect because implementing new systems alone does not ensure compliance; in fact, new systems can introduce new compliance risks if not audited.

Option C is insufficient; reviewing laws only during annual planning does not ensure ongoing compliance in day-to-day operations.

Option D is incomplete because consulting external experts without follow-up action or review does not guarantee that compliance requirements are actually met or maintained.

Therefore, the action that most directly helps ensure legal compliance in IT is B. Auditing IT practices on a regular basis.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Risk management is the structured process an organization uses to identify, assess, prioritize, and respond to risks (including cybersecurity threats) in order to reduce their potential impact on operations, assets, and objectives. It typically involves:

Identifying risks and threats

Assessing likelihood and impact

Prioritizing risks based on that assessment

Selecting and implementing controls or mitigation strategies

Monitoring and reviewing residual risk over time

In the context of Information Technology Management, risk management ensures that limited resources are focused on the most significant threats, balancing security, cost, and business needs.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Threat modeling – Focuses on identifying and analyzing potential threats and attack paths, usually during system or application design. While related, it does not cover the full cycle of prioritizing and managing overall organizational risk.

B. Penetration testing – Involves simulated attacks to find vulnerabilities, but it is a testing technique, not a complete process for assessing and prioritizing threats and impacts.

C. Cyber hygiene – Refers to routine best practices (patching, password management, backups) to maintain security. It is a set of practices, not a formal process for assessing and prioritizing threats.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Risk management, as it explicitly includes assessing and prioritizing threats to reduce potential organizational impact.

Understanding Team Friction:

Team friction often arises due to a lack of communication, recognition, or conflicting goals.

Building a positive work culture where team members feel valued can reduce friction and improve collaboration.

Creating a Culture of Appreciation:

Regularly acknowledging contributions fosters trust and teamwork.

It encourages positive behavior and strengthens team bonds.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A: Weekly feedback is useful but does not address the root causes of friction.

Option C: Nurturing competition can exacerbate conflicts and harm collaboration.

Option D: Anonymous feedback might provide insights but does not directly alleviate friction.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A key benefit of manufacturing ERP systems is improved coordination of materials used in production. ERP integrates purchasing, inventory management, and production planning so that materials and components are:

Ordered at the right time

Delivered in the right quantities

Available at the correct locations for manufacturing activities

This integration reduces stockouts, excess inventory, and delays caused by missing parts, thereby making production more efficient and reliable. Improved material coordination supports smoother workflows on the production floor and better alignment between demand and supply.

Option A (Customized machine software) refers to specialized software for specific machines or equipment, which is not the primary benefit of a manufacturing ERP system.

Option B (Streamlined hiring processes) is a human resources function and would be associated with HR systems, not specifically manufacturing ERP.

Option C (Enhanced supplier marketing) relates more to marketing and promotion to suppliers, which is not a central benefit of manufacturing ERP.

Thus, the primary benefit listed that aligns with manufacturing ERP is improved material coordination.

The Rational Unified Process (RUP) is an iterative software development framework with four phases: Inception, Elaboration, Construction, and Transition. The Elaboration phase comes after Inception and is focused on analyzing requirements, validating the system architecture, and addressing major risks before full-scale development begins.

Option B (Transition): Final phase, focused on deploying the system to end users.

Option C (Construction): Development and coding of the system, after architecture is validated.

Option D (Inception): Early phase, focused on business case and scope definition.

Thus, the correct phase before validating the system architecture is Elaboration.

Integration testing focuses on ensuring that different modules or components of the system work together correctly. This validates that individual units, once combined, interact seamlessly and produce the expected results.

Option B (Parallel testing): Compares old and new systems running together.

Option C (Unit testing): Tests individual components in isolation.

Option D (Acceptance testing): Validates the entire system with user requirements.

Thus, the type of testing that ensures components work together is Integration testing.