Information-Technology-Management WGU Information Technology Management QGC2 Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Trojan horse (or simply “Trojan”) is a type of malware that pretends to be legitimate or useful software to trick users into installing or running it. Once executed, it can create backdoors, download additional malicious components, or allow unauthorized access to the system, while often hiding its true purpose.

Why B is correct: A Trojan disguises itself as something benign or helpful (such as a free utility, game, or update) in order to deceive the user and gain access. This matches the definition given in standard cybersecurity sections of IT management materials.

Why the others are incorrect:

A. Keylogger – Specializes in capturing keystrokes to steal information like passwords; it may be delivered by a Trojan, but the defining behavior is keystroke logging, not masquerading as legitimate software.

C. Spyware – Secretly monitors user activity and sends data to an attacker; it focuses on surveillance, not necessarily on pretending to be legitimate software as its core characteristic.

D. Rootkit – Designed to hide the presence of malware or attackers by modifying system processes and tools; its main role is stealth and persistence, not initial disguise as legitimate software.

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring and managing network devices such as routers, switches, and servers. It allows administrators to gather network performance data and configure devices remotely.

Materials management within supply chain management focuses on coordinating the availability, flow, and movement of raw materials, components, and finished products. This ensures that production schedules are met, inventory is managed effectively, and customer deliveries are fulfilled on time.

Option A: Equipment placement is part of production design, not materials management.

Option B: Materials management includes inventory control, not eliminating it.

Option C: Marketing strategies are unrelated to supply chain material flow.

Thus, the correct focus is coordinating the availability and movement of materials and products.

Understanding CRM Phases:

CRM systems encompass phases such as reporting, analyzing, and predicting to support business operations and decision-making.

The predicting phase uses historical data to forecast future trends, behaviors, or requirements.

Application in the Scenario:

The inventory manager is using CRM data to forecast how much inventory to pre-order for a sales promotion, aligning with the predicting phase.

This involves evaluating past sales trends and customer behaviors to anticipate demand.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option B (Defining): This phase does not exist in CRM processes.

Option C (Reporting): Reporting provides data summaries but does not forecast future needs.

Option D (Analyzing): Analyzing focuses on identifying patterns but stops short of prediction.

Definition of Strategy in Business Layers:

The strategy layer focuses on determining products or services, target customers, and competitive positioning.

It involves defining the organization's long-term goals and the means to achieve them in alignment with market needs and opportunities.

Why Strategy is Key to Product/Service Decisions:

Guides resource allocation to achieve competitive advantage.

Determines value propositions, customer segmentation, and market focus.

Incorrect Options Analysis:

A. Systems: Focuses on technology infrastructure, not business direction.

B. Operating: Deals with day-to-day operations, not strategic decisions.

C. Corporate: Relates to governance and overarching organizational management, not product/service specifics.

References and Documents of Information Technology Management:

"Business Strategy Fundamentals" (McKinsey & Co.).

ITIL 4 Service Strategy Practices (Axelos).

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A USB flash drive is a type of portable storage device that uses solid-state memory (specifically, flash memory) to store data. When you save files to a USB flash drive, the data is written to and stored in the local solid-state memory chips inside the device itself, not on the computer’s main storage or any external network.

Key points aligned with Information Technology Management concepts:

Solid-state memory (flash memory) has no moving parts, unlike traditional hard disk drives. It stores data electronically in memory cells, which makes it durable, compact, and well-suited for portable devices such as USB drives.

A USB flash drive is considered removable storage, meaning it can be disconnected from one computer and connected to another while still retaining the stored data because it is kept in the device’s own internal solid-state memory.

The operating system simply treats the USB flash drive as another storage volume (like an additional drive letter), but the physical location of the data is on the flash memory inside the USB device, not in the computer’s internal hard drive or memory.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Option A: Shared network location – This refers to storage on a network server or cloud system accessed over a network connection. A USB flash drive does not require a network; it stores data locally on the device itself.

Option C: Computer hardware – While the USB drive plugs into the computer’s hardware (USB port), the data is not stored in the computer’s internal components (like the internal hard drive or RAM). It is stored on the USB drive’s own internal solid-state memory.

Option D: Browser cache – Browser cache is temporary storage used by web browsers on a local device to speed up loading web pages. It is unrelated to where data is stored on a USB flash drive.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Local solid-state memory, because that accurately describes where data is physically stored when using a USB flash drive.

A Solid-State Drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to store data electronically, allowing faster data access, lower latency, and improved reliability compared to mechanical storage devices. SSDs have no moving parts, making them more durable and efficient for high-speed computing tasks.

Option A (Hard disk drive): Uses spinning magnetic disks and is slower.

Option B (Optical disc drive): Reads/writes data using lasers on discs (CDs, DVDs).

Option D (Magnetic tape drive): Stores large volumes of data sequentially, primarily for backups.

Thus, the correct answer is Solid-state drive.

A wireframe is a low-fidelity representation that shows the layout and structure of a system’s interface but does not include interaction or functional features. In contrast, a prototype is interactive and allows stakeholders to experience simulated functionality.

Option A: Backend logic relates to system design, not wireframes.

Option B: Wireframes can include user input, not excluded.

Option D: A functional version is a prototype, not a wireframe.

Thus, a wireframe is distinguished by showing layout and structure without interaction.

Understanding Slice-and-Dice:

The "slice-and-dice" capability of dashboards allows users to break down large datasets into smaller, manageable segments for analysis.

This enables business managers to view data from different perspectives, such as by time period, geography, or product category.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (Pivot): Pivot focuses on reorganizing data but is more specific to spreadsheet functionalities.

Option B (Exploration): Exploration involves data discovery but does not inherently support segmentation.

Option C (Consolidation): Consolidation aggregates data rather than breaking it into segments.

Role of a Trusted Third Party:

Trusted third parties, like Certificate Authorities (CAs), validate the correlation between users and public keys.

They ensure secure communication by providing authentication (verifying user identity) and authorization (granting access rights).

Advantages in Disaster Recovery Planning:

Simplifies secure communication during recovery processes.

Provides a trusted mechanism for verifying identities and preventing unauthorized access.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (Monitors enclosures): Not related to public key verification.

Option B (Protects against encrypted attacks): While encryption enhances security, it is not the purpose of a trusted third party.

Option D (Features full-time monitoring): Not a function of trusted third parties like CAs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In IT and UX design, a wireframe is a low-fidelity, structural blueprint of a screen, page, or interface. Its key characteristics are:

It shows the basic layout: placement of menus, buttons, content areas, images, forms, and navigation elements.

It does not focus on visual styling: usually no colors, branding, fonts, or detailed graphics.

It generally has no interactivity: it represents what goes where, not how the system behaves in detail.

Wireframes are used to:

Clarify information hierarchy and navigation flow.

Align stakeholders on the structure of the solution before investing in visual design or development.

Serve as a bridge between requirements and higher-fidelity mockups or prototypes.

This is exactly described by “a basic layout without visual design or interactivity,” which matches Option C.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. A diagram of system data flow without functionalityThat describes a data flow diagram (DFD), not a wireframe. DFDs focus on data movement, not page layout.

B. A polished design with visual design and interactivityThat describes a high-fidelity mockup or interactive prototype, not a wireframe.

D. A detailed coded interface for backend testingThat refers to an implemented UI or test harness, which goes far beyond the purpose and fidelity of wireframes.

Global Team Formation:

Organizations often form global teams when they face talent shortages in their local markets. Expanding globally provides access to a larger and more diverse talent pool.

Global teams enable the organization to leverage regional expertise, foster innovation, and reduce dependency on local markets.

Incorrect Options Analysis:

B. Security via private cloud: Relates to infrastructure decisions, not team formation.

C. Digital transformation: Involves adopting technology, not directly forming a global team.

D. U.S. Military as a client: Security and compliance measures may be involved, but this is not necessarily linked to global team creation.

References and Documents of Information Technology Management:

"Global Talent Acquisition Strategies" (McKinsey).

ITIL Human Resources Alignment Best Practices (Axelos).

Asymmetrical encryption (also known as public-key encryption) uses a pair of mathematically related keys:

A public key for encryption

A private key for decryption

This ensures secure communication, as only the private key holder can decrypt data encrypted with the corresponding public key.

Option A (Symmetrical): Uses the same key for both encryption and decryption.

Option C: File compression reduces file size, not encryption.

Option D: Data anonymization removes identifying details, not encryption.

Thus, the encryption type that uses related but different keys is Asymmetrical encryption.

Information of Everything (IoE):

Refers to the phenomenon of using information derived from every connected device, system, and user in a knowledge-based global society.

Growth in information industries enables the collection, analysis, and sharing of vast amounts of data to drive decision-making, automation, and innovation.

Business Impact:

Creation of a knowledge-dependent society where data is the key driver of value creation and economic growth.

IoE facilitates smart systems, global connectivity, and the integration of diverse industries.

Incorrect Options Analysis:

Autonomous Agent: Refers to self-governing systems, not a societal impact.

Ambient Digital Experience: Focuses on pervasive and seamless digital interfaces.

Virtual Assistant: A specific application, not a broad societal impact.

References and Documents of Information Technology Management:

Gartner’s “Top Technology Trends: Information of Everything.”

ITIL 4 Digital Strategy Guide (Axelos Publications).

Importance of Audience Awareness for IT Leaders:

When presenting to the board of directors, it is critical to tailor the content to their level of technical understanding and focus on strategic implications rather than technical details.

The board typically focuses on business outcomes, risks, and opportunities, not technical minutiae.

Key Considerations:

Highlight how IT initiatives align with business goals and deliver value.

Use concise, clear, and non-technical language while ensuring key points are well-supported with data.

Incorrect Options Analysis:

A. Provide all technical details: The board is more interested in business-level insights.

B. Focus on problems: Solutions and strategic outcomes are more relevant to the board.

C. Brevity: While being concise is important, it should not come at the cost of clarity or relevance.

References and Documents of Information Technology Management:

"Effective Communication Strategies for IT Leaders" (Harvard Business Review).

ITIL Leadership and Communication Practices (Axelos).

An Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system integrates key business functions—including finance, payroll, HR, supply chain, and operations—into a unified platform. By consolidating payroll processes into the ERP, the organization eliminates disconnected systems, reduces manual steps, and enables faster, more accurate payroll processing.

Option A: Incorrect—talent development focuses on employee growth and training, not payroll.

Option B: Incorrect—training compliance tools track certifications, not payroll.

Option C: Incorrect—internal communication portals improve collaboration, not financial processes.

Thus, the correct solution is Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) software.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) principles are used to evaluate how responsibly an organization operates. In the context of IT projects, ESG affects:

Environmental (E):

Selecting energy-efficient data centers, servers, and devices

Reducing e-waste through responsible lifecycle management

Choosing cloud or infrastructure options that minimize environmental impact

Social (S):

Ensuring privacy and protection of user and employee data

Considering accessibility and inclusion in system design

Addressing the impact of automation, monitoring, or data use on employees and customers

Governance (G):

Ensuring IT decisions align with laws, regulations, and internal policies

Implementing proper controls, audits, and accountability in IT operations

Promoting transparency, fairness, and ethical decision-making in IT strategy

Together, ESG principles guide IT leaders to make sustainable and ethical decisions about:

Technology procurement

System design and architecture

Vendor selection and third-party services

Data management and security practices

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. They guide procurement based on economic factors.ESG is broader than purely economic considerations; it emphasizes non-financial factors such as environmental impact, social responsibility, and governance quality.

C. They place restrictions on how companies are structured.ESG influences how companies operate and make decisions, but it is not primarily about mandating organizational structures.

D. They emphasize successful planning processes and strategies.While planning and strategy may incorporate ESG, this option is too generic and does not capture the specific focus on sustainability and ethics.

Therefore, Option A is correct: ESG principles affect IT projects by influencing sustainability and ethics in decisions throughout the project lifecycle.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In a customer relationship management (CRM) system, workflow automation is the feature that handles digitalized customer support processes, including ticket creation, routing, escalation, and status updates. It automates repetitive service tasks based on predefined business rules.

Key points about workflow automation in CRM:

Automatically routes support tickets to the appropriate agent, team, or queue based on category, priority, or customer type.

Triggers escalation rules when tickets remain unresolved beyond a set time or when the issue severity is high.

Sends notifications and alerts to agents, supervisors, and sometimes customers.

Ensures that support processes are consistent, trackable, and efficient.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Response queue analytics – This focuses on measuring and analyzing queue performance (like response times and backlog), not actually routing or escalating tickets.

C. Channel preference management – This manages or records which communication channels (email, chat, phone, social media) a customer prefers. It does not handle ticket routing or escalation workflows.

D. Interaction history management – This stores and organizes past interactions (emails, calls, chats) but does not automate support processes.

Therefore, the CRM feature that includes digitalized processes such as ticket routing and escalation is workflow automation.

SME-focused ERP systems provide small and medium businesses with essential business functions such as finance, HR, inventory, and sales at a lower cost compared to large-scale ERP solutions. This allows SMEs to gain the benefits of integration and automation without the high expense of enterprise-level systems.

Option A: Incorrect—ERP systems enhance reporting, not reduce it.

Option B: Incorrect—ERP does not design growth strategies, it supports operations.

Option D: Incorrect—advanced forecasting is more of a high-level analytics function, not the primary SME ERP focus.

Thus, SME-focused ERP systems primarily help by providing core functions at low cost.