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CTFL_Syll_4.0 iSQI ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your iSQI CTFL_Syll_4.0 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 200 questions

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test. While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met. This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed.

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error

C.

The slowdown is an error the memory leak is a defect

D.

The slowdown is a defect the memory leak is a failure

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.

D.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is true?

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialized

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

Which ONE of the following statements about the objectives of confirmation and regression testing is the BEST?

A.

Confirmation testing aims to confirm that the observed failure is not a false positive. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

C.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in modified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

D.

The purpose of regression testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily resolved. The purpose of the confirmation testing is to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

A typical test objective is to:

A.

determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases

B.

verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements

C.

plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is true?

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the“World Organization for Happy Tomatoes”has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Using theequivalence partitioningtechnique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

An anti-intrusion system is battery powered and is activated by pressing the only available button. To deactivate the system, the operator must enter a PIN code. The system will stay in alert mode within a configurable timeout and an alarm bell will ring if the system is not deactivated before the timeout expires. The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of the system:

What is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4 states/3 transitions starting and ending in the “Inactive” state? (note that “Inactive” is not a final state in the diagram)

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modularization

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyze

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask theuser to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[II]. Expected result

[III]. Actual result

[IV]. Test level

[V]. Root cause

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly specify in a defect report?

A.

[I]and [IV]

B.

[II]and [III]

C.

[II]. [Ill] and [V]

D.

[I]. [IV] and [V]

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1.Risk register

2.Risk information

3.Test cases

4.Test conditions

Category of work products:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C.

Test design work products

D.

Test monitoring and control work products

E.

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

F.

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

G.

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

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Total 200 questions
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