SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2023 Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

RADIUS and Kerberos are two protocols that can be used to integrate Active Directory accounts and groups with network and remote-access devices. RADIUS is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. It can use Active Directory as a backend database to store user credentials and group memberships. Kerberos is a protocol that provides secure authentication and encryption for network services. It is the default authentication protocol for Active Directory and can be used by remote-access devices that support it.

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a solution that can collect, correlate, and analyze security logs and events from various devices on a network. SIEM can provide better visibility into user activities by generating reports, alerts, dashboards, and metrics. SIEM can also help detect and respond to security incidents, comply with regulations, and improve security posture.

EAP-TLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol - Transport Layer Security) is an authentication protocol that uses certificates to provide mutual authentication between the client and the authentication server. It also allows for the encryption of user credentials, making EAP-TLS a secure and reliable authentication protocol. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, EAP-TLS is well-suited for wireless networks due to its mutual authentication capabilities and its ability to securely store credentials. It is also the preferred authentication protocol for 802.1X wireless networks.

 B. Constructing the secondary site in a geographically disperse location would ensure that a natural disaster at the primary site would not affect the secondary site. It would also allow for failover during traffic surge situations by distributing the load across different regions. D. Installing generators would provide protection against power surges and outages by providing backup power sources in case of a failure. Generators are part of the physical security requirements for data centers as they ensure availability and resilience. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 3 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.5: Explain the importance of physical security controls

This option is the most likely reason for preventing the IT manager at the hospital from upgrading the specialized OS. The MRI scanner is a complex and sensitive device that requires a specific OS to control and operate it. The MRI vendor may not have developed or tested newer versions of the OS for compatibility and functionality with the scanner. Upgrading the OS without the vendor’s support may cause the scanner to malfunction or stop working altogether.

Placing all known-infected hosts on an isolated network is the best way to stop the spread of a worm infection. This will prevent the worm from reaching other hosts on the network and allow the infected hosts to be cleaned and restored. Disconnecting every host from the network is not practical and may disrupt business operations. Running an AV scan on the entire network or scanning the hosts that show signs of infection may not be effective or fast enough to stop a fast-spreading worm.

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol that is used to encrypt data sent over HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure). In order for an intrusion detection system (IDS) and a web application firewall (WAF) to be effective on HTTPS traffic, they must be able to inspect the encrypted traffic. TLS inspection allows the IDS and WAF to decrypt and inspect the traffic, allowing them to detect any malicious activity. References: [1] CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601 [1], Sixth Edition, Chapter 11, "Network Security Monitoring" [2] CompTIA Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead: SY0-501 Study Guide, Chapter 7, "Intrusion Detection and Prevention"

PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that can provide secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP can use certificates to authenticate the server and the client, or only the server. PEAP can also use other methods, such as passwords or tokens, to authenticate the client. PEAP can ensure only employees with a valid certificate can authenticate to the network.

The scenario describes preventive controls, which are designed to stop malicious actors from gaining access to the organization's servers. This includes using multiple access points, such as a lobby, an access control vestibule, and multiple doors leading to the server floor, as well as caging the organization's hardware. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 document, preventive controls are "designed to stop malicious actors from performing a malicious activity or gaining access to an asset." These controls can include technical solutions, such as authentication and access control systems, physical security solutions, such as locks and barriers, and administrative solutions such as policy enforcement.

Access control vestibules are physical security controls that consist of two sets of doors or gates that create a small enclosed space between them. Only one door or gate can be opened at a time, and only one person can enter or exit the vestibule at a time. Access control vestibules can prevent multiple people from using a unique card swipe and being admitted to a secure entrance, as they require each person to authenticate individually and prevent tailgating or piggybacking.

NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework) is a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks. It is based on existing standards, guidelines, and practices that are widely recognized and applicable across different sectors and organizations. It provides a common language and framework for understanding, communicating, and managing cybersecurity risks. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 7, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.4: Explain the techniques used in security assessments 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 3 https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework

the measure that calculates the average time that equipment will operate before it breaks is MTBF12. MTBF stands for Mean Time Between Failures and it is a metric that represents the average time between two failures occurring in a given period12. MTBF is used to measure the reliability and availability of a product or system12. The higher the MTBF, the more reliable and available the product or system is12.

Tracert is a command-line tool that shows the route that packets take to reach a destination on a network1. It also displays the time it takes for each hop along the way1. By using tracert, you can see if there is a router or firewall that is blocking or slowing down the traffic between the internal workstation and the specific server1.

the cat command reads the file and streams its content to standard output. The | symbol connects the output of the left command with the input of the right command. The grep command returns all lines that match the regex. The cut command splits each line into fields based on a delimiter and extracts a specific field.

An on-path attack is a type of attack where an attacker places themselves between two devices (such as a workstation and a server) and intercepts or modifies the communications between them. An on-path attacker can collect sensitive information, impersonate either device, or disrupt the service. In this scenario, the attacker is likely using an on-path attack to capture and alter the network traffic between the workstation and the server, causing service disruptions and data leakage.

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a technology that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting traffic and authenticating it at both the sender and receiver. It can be used to create secure tunnels between two or more devices, allowing users to access resources securely and privately.

SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer Virtual Private Network) is a type of VPN that uses an SSL/TLS connection to encrypt traffic between two or more devices. It is a secure and reliable solution for providing remote access, as all traffic is encrypted and authenticated. Additionally, SSL VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, making them a secure and robust solution for remote access.

A web application firewall (WAF) is a solution that inspects traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment and protects them from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service1. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a virtual appliance in front of the web servers. A load balancer is a solution that distributes traffic among multiple web servers in a cloud environment and improves their performance, availability, and scalability2. A load balancer can also perform health checks on the web servers and route traffic only to the healthy ones. The other options are not relevant to this scenario. A CASB is a cloud access security broker, which is a solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud services by an organization’s users3. A VPN is a virtual private network, which is a solution that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two networks or devices over the internet. TLS is Transport Layer Security, which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. DAST is dynamic application security testing, which is a method of testing web applications for vulnerabilities by simulating attacks on them.

References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/what-is-a-web-application-firewall-waf/  2: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/load-balancing/  3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/cloud-access-security-broker-casb/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/vpn-virtual-private-network/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/transport-layer-security-tls/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dynamic-application-security-testing-dast/ : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cloud-adoption-framework/ready/azure-best-practices/plan-for-traffic-inspection : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/inspect-traffic-with-azure-firewall : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/gateway/application-gateway-before-azure-firewall

A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) device is a battery backup system that can provide consistent power levels in case of brownouts or voltage spikes. It can also provide a minimum of 30 minutes runtime following a power outage, depending on the size and load of the device. A network-connected UPS device can also communicate with critical systems and trigger graceful shutdowns if the battery level is low or the power is not restored. 

Third-party applications are applications that are developed and provided by external vendors or sources, rather than by the organization itself. Third-party applications may introduce security risks if they are not properly vetted, configured, or updated. One of the most likely causes of vulnerability scanners flagging several hosts after the completion of the patch process is that third-party applications are not being patched. Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patching third-party applications is essential for maintaining their security and functionality, as well as preventing attackers from exploiting known flaws.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html

 A jump server is a device that acts as an intermediary between users and other devices on a network. A jump server can provide a secure and controlled access point to the legacy devices without exposing them directly to the network. A jump server can also enforce authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing policies.

 User-agent spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to modify the user-agent header of an HTTP request to impersonate another browser or device12. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on user-agent filtering or validation12. In this case, the attacker spoofed the user-agent header to match the company’s mobile application, which was allowed to access the back-end server’s API2.

The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives. False positive results occur when a vulnerability scanner incorrectly identifies a non-vulnerable system or application as being vulnerable. This can happen due to incorrect configuration, over-sensitive rule sets, or outdated scan databases.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/sy0-601-comptia-security-plus-course/

Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12.

Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.

Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.

Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.

SOC2 is a type of audit report that provides assurance on the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization’s systems. It is based on the Trust Services Criteria developed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA). A SOC2 report can provide proof that customer data is being appropriately protected by the hosted data provider1

https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454/  3: https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454os/  1: https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/blog/2021/08/20/star-testimonial-c sa-star-soc2-from-readiness-to-attestation/

The account lockout can be attributed to a brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a type of attack where an attacker attempts to guess a user's password by continually trying different combinations of characters. In this case, it is likely that the security engineer's account was locked out due to an attacker attempting to guess their password. Backdoor, rootkit, and Trojan attacks are not relevant in this scenario.

Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext over the network. This means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can read the data, including the username and password of the server administrator. A packet capture tool is a software or hardware device that can capture and analyze network packets. An attacker can use a packet capture tool to steal the password and use it to install malicious software on the server. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-security

Uninterruptible power supplies with battery backup would be the most cost-effective solution for the data center to implement to prevent under-voltage events following electrical grid maintenance outside the facility. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that provides emergency power to a load when the main power source fails or drops below an acceptable level. A UPS with battery backup can help prevent under-voltage events by switching to battery power when it detects a voltage drop or outage in the main power source. A UPS with battery backup can also protect the data center equipment from power surges or spikes.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.apc.com/us/en/faqs/FA158852/

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. It uses encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. IPSec can operate in two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In tunnel mode, IPSec can create a virtual private network (VPN) between two endpoints, such as external partners and internal networks. To establish a VPN connection, IPSec requires a pre-shared key (PSK) or other parameters to negotiate the security association. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-vpn

Least privilege is a security principle that states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access and permissions required to perform their tasks. This reduces the risk of insider threats by limiting the potential damage that a malicious or compromised user or process can cause to the system or data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-least-privilege

Non-PII stands for non-personally identifiable information, which is any data that does not directly identify a specific individual. Non-PII can include information such as job title, business phone number, location, first initial with last name, and race. Non-PII can be used for various purposes, such as statistical analysis, marketing, or research. However, non-PII may still pose some privacy risks if it is combined or linked with other data that can reveal an individual’s identity.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.investopedia.com/terms/n/non-personally-identifiable-information-npii.asp

The total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset can be calculated using the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). SLE is the monetary loss expected from a single event, while ARO is the estimated frequency of that event occurring in a year. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-501, 7th Edition, by Emmett Dulaney and Chuck Easttom, Chapter 9: Risk Management, page 414.